Random number from many other random numbers, is it more random?

We want to generate a uniform random number from the interval [0, 1].
Let's first generate k random booleans (for example by rand()<0.5) and decide according to these on what subinterval [m*2^{-k}, (m+1)*2^{-k}] the number will fall. Then we use one rand() to get the final output as m*2^{-k} + rand()*2^{-k}.
Let's assume we have arbitrary precision.

Will a random number generated this way be 'more random' than the usual rand()?

PS. I guess the subinterval picking amounts to just choosing the binary representation of the output 0. b_1 b_2 b_3... one digit b_i at a time and the final step is adding the representation of rand() to the end of the output.